All of Annoyance's Comments + Replies

Alcohol is an just example. It's well-known that crude global brain impairment reduces self-monitoring first.

Annoyance-10

Recursive definitions are possible, but they must still be founded on a base level that does not reference itself. Each other level can then be defined in a way that is not self-referential.

0DanArmak
I believe usually it is also required that the number of steps (levels) to reach the non-recursive base should always be finite (e.g. recursion via a countable set).
0Cyan
Indeed. I'm just asking for a little precision, e.g., valid definitions cannot just reference themselves.
Annoyance-40

"The definition of a mammal is simple: descent from the most recent common ancestor of all mammals."

Valid definitions cannot reference themselves.

3DanArmak
Which is why the next sentence after the one you quoted explained: "In practice, to avoid circularity, it is sufficient to take the MRCA of a few indisputable mammalian groups such as primates, rodents, carnivorans, ungulates, etc. to include all mammals." IOW, start from a few groups everyone agrees on calling mammals, and you have a precise rule stating whether any given animal is a mammal or not.
4Cyan
You need to be a little more careful about such absolute statements. The definition of factorial(.) as factorial(n) = n*factorial(n-1) factorial(0) = 1 references itself and is valid.
Annoyance-20

".--but we admit to the category of mammals many animals that fail one or more of these criteria."

No, we don't. Dolphins have all of the required attributes to be considered mammals. If they didn't, we couldn't call them mammals any longer.

-1Technologos
Monotremes are mammals, yet do not share the property of giving live birth. "Hair... may be greatly reduced in the Cetacea (i.e. dolphins), where it is found as a few scattered bristles about the lips or often present only in the young." W. J. Hamilton, American Mammals. Heterocephalus glaber, the naked mole rat, is a mammal despite being poikilothermic. As DanArmak notes, mammals are explicitly not the set of all species fulfilling a particular set of (external) criteria. They are defined by descent. To the extent that this is useful, great. My point was merely that there is no external fact of the matter that requires drawing the boundaries where they currently are. So when “ordinary people…get it wrong” by believing that dolphins are fish, it’s a little hard to blame them.
4DanArmak
The definition of a mammal is simple: descent from the most recent common ancestor of all mammals. In practice, to avoid circularity, it is sufficient to take the MRCA of a few indisputable mammalian groups such as primates, rodents, carnivorans, ungulates, etc. to include all mammals. This definition is useful because it turns out that there are many traits unique to mammals, and any given mammal will have almost all these traits. Many such traits are anatomical/biochemical/etc. (Many outwards traits like live birth or so-called "warm blood" aren't unique to mammals.) However, even if this definition wasn't useful to us, the group Mammalia would still exist. It's a natural evolutionary group (clade) in phylogenetics, to which we merely give a name. (Edit: and cladistics is a natural way of classifying species (among other ways). By natural I mean a classification that tends to match common and unique traits of species in the same clade, and which is causally linked to the history of of the species and to predictions for their future, so that I would expect aliens to have a relatively high probability of using similar classifications.) The precise clade referred to by the word Mammalia can change depending on context. It makes sense to ask whether borderline species like platypuses are mammals or a sister group of mammals. That's the fuzzy nature of any classification of real things. But the natural limits of the category "mammals" lie somewhere around the monotremes. A group which doesn't include dolphins is definitely not the group of all mammals.

That is an absolutely charming interpretation, and one that makes a lot of sense. However, in my experience, it's not how the riddle is commonly used.

That would be a great way to show off your knowledge of jeweler's weights, though.

There's more to it, of course. Ask the question with substances that don't produce strong associations regarding "weight" (really, density), and people tend not to get it wrong no matter how much time pressure is involved.

Annoyance-10

The biological category of 'mammal' is quite well-defined, thank you.

And fuzzy definitions are fine until you're dealing with a case that lies in the penumbra, at which time it becomes a massive problem.

-2Technologos
If a fuzzy definition becomes a massive problem, then that definition clearly wasn't in existence merely to simplify speech. Regarding mammals, is there a use for the term that requires its inclusion of dolphins? Does the existence of sweat glands usefully separate mammals from other animals? After all, mammals in general share a variety of properties: most give live birth, most have hair, most are warm-blooded, etc.--but we admit to the category of mammals many animals that fail one or more of these criteria. A well-defined but useless category (I am not arguing that "mammal" is such a category, as there may well be a biological use for it) may be pedagogically interesting but otherwise may merely confuse our understanding of thingspace.

This looks sincere to me, and given that it's sincere, people really ought to be allowed more chance than this to recover from their mistakes.

I say that depends entirely on the nature of the mistake. Gross negligence should not be forgiven, although the proper response is not necessarily retributive.

Not in the way that 'rationalization' is used in natural language. That refers to a non-rational statement that is used in place of rationality in order to satisfy the desire to present an argument as rational without having to go through the trouble of actually constructing and adopting a rational position.

The biggest functional difference: when a reason is abolished, the behavior goes away. When a rationalization is abolished, the behavior remains.

Annoyance-20

And the recognition that the process that ordinary people went though had pretty much NOTHING in common with "necessary and sufficient conditions" was not made by philosophers.

Ordinary people struggle to decide whether dolphins are fish or penguins are birds. And they often get it wrong if they haven't been explicitly taught otherwise; even then, some still screw up their answers.

1Technologos
At what point do we say that the problem lies in the definition of a category? Since ordinary people have no especial use for the category "bird," it's unsurprising that they haven't nailed down characteristics that would allow such a use. Categories that we need--that must reliably possess some characteristic(s) such that they are useful--tend to have strict necessary and sufficient conditions for inclusion. Categories that we use purely to simplify speech can get away with fuzzier definitions. Is the dolphin really a fish? That depends: is that thing over there really a blegg?
Annoyance-10

Your final conclusion is like saying that [blah blah blah]

No, it's not. Associational processing can emulate logical thinking, but it's not restricted to it and will not normally produce it. Restrictions have to be added for logic to arise out of the sea of associations.

1Richard_Kennaway
In other words, we have to learn logic, we're not born with it. This is news? Electric charge doesn't spontaneously do arithmetic either.
6Jack
The fact that you felt the need to compare the points you made with knowing the composition of water just demonstrates the need for citations. If these points about psychology were actually as commonly known as the composition of water then you wouldn't need an analogy- you would just sarcastically remark "A citation? Really?". Maybe if psychology was required in high school and earlier the way chemistry is we would all know this already. As it stands, at least 3-4 of us didn't realize that these points are widely known and non-controversial (and have taken the time to say so) so I think there is good reason to think that these points aren't known by non-psychologists the way certain chemical compositions are by non-chemists.
6SilasBarta
Don't be your name. thomblake gave good advice. Remember, your post isn't just presenting common knowledge, but a non-obvious conclusion based on (what you claim is) common knowledge. If someone wants to pursue the point further, it would have helped to have links to related insights and topics, or at least the writings that helped you reach this conclusion.

If I had a dollar for every brainy person who'd been gulled because they thought they were "too smart" to require being skeptical...

and if I had a dollar for every average idiot who sleepwalked straight into an obvious scam I would make a lot more money.

Those sets are not disjoint.

1SforSingularity
I define "average idiot" to be disjoint from "brainy person". Does that sound reasonable? Of course, I am sure that there are some very clever people who sleepwalked straight into a really obvious scam without even questioning it, but I am making the empirical claim that this doesn't happen as much as it does for people of below average intelligence.

Most "rationalists" are quite smart people, so tricks that are designed by a trickster to fool the masses rarely work on us.

Wrong. Tricksters rely on people making stupid assumptions and failing to check assertions. People with a lot of brainpower can do those things just as easily as people without.

Physicists asked to evaluate paranormal claims do very poorly, yet they are clearly very brainy. It takes more than just brains to be intelligent - you have to use the brains properly.

If I had a dollar for every brainy person who'd been gulled because they thought they were "too smart" to require being skeptical...

3SforSingularity
Reference, please. I defy the implied claim that "Physicists asked to evaluate paranormal claims do worse than the average person". I bet 6:1 against this. and if I had a dollar for every average idiot who sleepwalked straight into an obvious scam I would make a lot more money.
Annoyance-10

That traditional anecdote (and its modified forms) only illustrate how little the pro-qualia advocates understand the arguments against the idea.

Dismissing 'qualia' does not, as many people frequently imply, require dismissing the idea that sensory stimuli can be distinguish and grouped into categories. That would be utterly absurd - it would render the senses useless and such a system would never have evolved.

All that's needed to is reject the idea that there are some mysterious properties to sensation which somehow violate basic logic and the principles of information theory.

3PrawnOfFate
Blatant strawman.
5Psychohistorian
My understanding of qualia is that mysterious is not a definitional property, i.e. "Qualia can be explained in a reductionist sense" is not a self-contradictory statement. The existence of qualia simply means that sense-experience is a meaningful event, not that it is a supernatural one. My view is that Mary's Room is fundamentally mistaken; what red looks like is a fact about Mary's brain, not about light of a certain wavelength. Mary can know everything there is to know about that wavelength of light without knowing the experience of a certain combination of neurons firing. Since we don't actually live in Mary's brain, we can't understand the qualia of "Mary's brain being stimulated by red light", but this is a limitation on our brains, not a "mystery." Perhaps a conscious being could exist that could construct others' brains and experience their qualia; we just don't know. But still, the fact that qualia are a potentially non-replicable hardware feature does not make them somehow supernatural.

Categorical imperatives that result in persistence will accumulate.

Why should any lifeform preserve its own existence? There's no reason. But those that do eventually dominate existence. Those that do not, are not.

"Sanity" is not well-defined, here.

There are plenty of people just as sociopathic as John, and just as dangerous as John but more so, who would not be considered insane or perceived as dangerous by society at large.

Most people in positions of power have strong sociopathic tendencies. It's just that many of them conform sufficiently well with society's expectations that they're not recognized as threats.

-1wedrifid
And when you do recognise a sociopath with power as a threat the smartest option is to stay the #@$@# away! Use of the label 'insane', among other things, means "I have the social resources to call you insane and get away with it".
0John_Maxwell
A couple stabs: A person's revealed utility function is the utility function that seems to govern their actual decisions. If a person's revealed utility function passes some threshold of wackiness or changes drastically enough at a high enough frequency, we call that person "insane". If a person's cognitive experience is very significantly different from others without them having significantly lower intelligence, and this manifests itself in their behavior and harms their instrumental rationality, they can be considered insane.
Annoyance-20

There are limits to the degree to which fnords can be discussed with others. Without doing the hard work necessary to perceive them, others cannot receive benefit from having them pointed out to them - and that can even be harmful, as our mental immune systems will construct defensive rationalizations to protect fnords brought to our attention that we're not strong enough to abolish.

The main issue is that we might be driving people away, and there are at least a few people for whom it is true.

Whether this is a problem depends on the people being driven away, and why.

Annoyance180

Those are excellent points, particularly the first. Adolf Hitler was one of the most effective rhetoricians in human history - his public speaking skills were simply astounding. Even the people who hated his message were stunned after attending rallies in which Hitler exercised his crowd-manipulation skills.

I don't think this post counts as 'trolling'. Certainly the desired responses to it could be used to troll, but that's not at all the same thing.

Clarity. The first depends on the interpretation of "abuse", and as such I think it's very likely that many people will agree with it to some degree.

The second is much more precise; although I think it is demonstrably untrue, I expect it will draw much reflexive denial.

0PeterS
I'm having trouble reconciling those two statements. I'm even having trouble trying to express just why they seem... inconsistent, or inharmonious? Could you elaborate a bit?

These are excellent examples. I don't see why they're being voted down.

The second, however, is much better than the first.

0PeterS
I'm blaming it having successfully triggered the "absolute denial macro" in at least a few people :D. Why's that?
Annoyance-10

Self-perpetuation in the strictest sense isn't always the point. The goal isn't to simply impose the same structure onto the future over and over again. It's continuity between structures that's important.

Wanting to live a long life isn't the same as having oneself frozen so that the same physical configuration of the body will persist endlessly. The collapse of ecosystems over a hundred-million-year-long timespan is not a failure, no more than our changing our minds constitutes a failure of self-preservation.

Annoyance160

I can't think of any particular issues that I'm convinced I know the truth of, yet most people will reflexively deny that truth completely.

I can, however, think of issues that I think are uncertain, but that the uncertainty of said issue is denied reflexively and completely. I suppose they would be meta-issues rather than issues themselves - it's a subtle point I'm not interested in pursuing.

Probably the most obvious one that comes to my mind is circumcision. I've never seen so many normally-intelligent people make such stupid and clearly incorrect argum... (read more)

0[anonymous]
Well, there's always at least one thing you can be sure of, according to Descartes :)
0CannibalSmith
That uncertainty is just a lie by the people who are wrong. :)

Bujold sometimes appears to argue for theism, but a very peculiar form of it that doesn't really match what most people mean by the term.

In some ways she seems to be a theological consequentialist - suggesting that people are better for believing that other people have souls, or at least acting as though they believe that other people have souls, regardless of whether it's literally true.

Cordelia Vorkosigan's religious beliefs are rather... odd. This is particularly clear in one exchange from Mirror Dance:

It's important that someone celebrate our existe

... (read more)

But, if you read his essays with an eye toward the workings of the mind, specifically how humans think when they theorize (which I consider his main topic) you will find useful things there that you would be hard pressed to find anywhere else.

I disagree. His logical errors are quite common; he serves as a good example of failure, yes, but such is rarely hard to find.

2Vladimir_Nesov
And given that we believe everything we're told, it's a dangerous experience.

Falling Free, by Lois McMaster Bujold.

It's a great story, but there's one scene in it that permanently changed my understanding of rationality: Leo Graf's first lecture to the engineering class where he discusses the relationship between engineering and ethics. The argument applies to all science and ways of applying scientific knowledge - really, to any and all attempts to interact with reality.

2kpreid
I'm just rereading it due to your mention, and I found this passage at the point where Leo Graf is beginning to realize What Needs To Be Done: Ignoring the religious content, for me-now this seems to be another occurrence of the idea that the universe is not adjusted to your skill level, and Graf is realizing he needs (to satisfy his morality) to do the impossible.

This is a really spectacular post.

One quibble: in the case being discussed, one variable is actually a property of the other variable, rather than another thing that is affected by something else.

Is it really appropriate to say that A causes B when B is just a property of A?

0thomblake
I was thinking this as well, but you could construct a situation that doesn't have this problem - like a mechanical system that relies on the derivative to perform some action deterministically.

We're not retarded. We're advanced

A lie is a knowing statement of untruth, almost always made in the hope that it will be mistaken for a sincere statement of truth.

Deception is far larger than lies.

As for intent - it's difficult to show, and depends partly on the qualities of the listener. Especially stupid and small-minded people often accuse others of trying to deceive them when the real problem was that they leapt to an invalid conclusion. My experience is that people without a great deal of self-candor will often accuse others of deception rather than considering the possibility that they themselves were dumb.

0MrHen
I agree with this. NTL is, by definition, not lying. In response to the original post I would ask for clarification on these points: * Is the problem with lying the lie itself? * Should deception be considered wrong? You can deceive people through silence and you can quickly find theoretical scenarios where non-action becomes clever deception. The basic objection I have to the original post is that Lying is being compared to Not-Lying when it seems like the intent was to compare Lying to Deception or possibly "other forms of deception". If the problem with Lying is Deception than the examples at the beginning are misleading. If NTL is bad, it is bad on grounds of deception, not because it looks so much like lying. To draw a comparison: Lying is to Murder as Deception is to Killing. Finding a scenario for Not-Technically-Murder is certainly possible but if the action should be considered analogous to murder for moral purposes than make it Technically-Murder. If both Murder and Not-Technically-Murder are bad because they are unjustified Killing than the subject has little to do with Murder and everything to do with unjustified Killing.

Yes. But that isn't the point. It holds across all deaths, not those necessarily caused by the error.

In the first section, yes. In the later sections, no.

Preferring minimal changes, I've altered the sentence you had a problem with - but not in the way you suggested. Your way is fine, too. I just like mine better.

That's certainly an issue, probably a contributing one. But the statistics strongly suggest that autopsy results aren't used to reduce error, as doctors are just as wrong now as they were eighty years ago.

1Cyan
... in cases where the patient dies. (The cited statistic does not refer to the overall error rate.)

Yes, but they're also the sum of prejudices, irrational convictions, short-circuited reasoning processes, and other biases.

Gawande discusses the decision to try to remove only the affected tissue rather than go for amputation - a decision which seems to work out. Then he asks how he and the other doctors knew they could spare the leg.

That's a fundamental failure, changing a guess to knowledge in highsight.

You're supposed to try to tear apart your own claims, first. Making random but testable assertions for no particular reason is not part of the methodology.

Okay. I was unsure if your statement was meant to be a personal insult or a comment about medicine - your comments have cleared that up for me.

If I may offer a suggestion:

Access NewsBank from your local library, go to the "search America's newspapers" option, and do some searching for the phrase "nasal radium". There will be lots of duplication. You may find it useful to only search for articles written between 1990 and 1995, just to get a basic understanding of what it was.

Then realize that the vast majority of surgical treatments where introduced in pretty much the same way, and had the same amount of pre-testing, as nasal radium.

Please note that I do not rule out the possibility that we derive a net benefit. It's just that it isn't obvious that we do.

A counterexample of my being right? Or a counterexample relating to medicine?

2SilasBarta
As in, "I have never encountered a doctor that actually understood the limits of his knowledge and how to appropriately use it, nor a clinical practice that wasn't basically the blind leading the blind."
Annoyance-10

Bing bing bing!

The real issue, of course, is why they're the easiest for us to represent.

That's coming up next.

why people make the mistake that "if not Q, then also not P".

Um... I don't think that's a mistake. Given "If P, then Q", the non-existence or falsehood of Q requires that P also not exist / be false. It leads to contradiction, otherwise.

After I got into a warm discussion with some other members of the speech and debate club in high school, I started doing a little research into the field of medicine and its errors.

Long story short: doctors are not the experts most people (including many of them) believe them to be, our system of medicine is really screwed up, and it's not even obvious that we derive a net benefit from medical intervention considered overall.

(It's pretty obvious that some specific interventions are extremely important, but they're quite basic and do not make up the majority of all interventions.)

1SilasBarta
I was about to lecture you on how wrong you are, until I realized I've never encountered a counterexample.

Doesn't it depend upon the context?

No. "P implies Q", even in regular, everyday English, does not suggest that P is the set of all possible causes for Q. Context doesn't matter.

0byrnema
So I would guess you don't understand why people make the mistake that "if not Q, then also not P". Do you have another hypothesis for the origin of this mistake? (Perhaps there is more than one cause, ha ha.) Later edit: The first sentence had an obvious error. In the quotes, I meant to write, "if Q, then P" -- or, more symmetrically, "if not P, then also not Q" as the mistake that is often made from "if p then q". I'm actually in large agreement with you about what "p implies q" means in ordinary English, but can wobble back and forth with some effort. Let me try a little harder to convince you of the interpretation I've been arguing. Let's suppose you are told, "if P then Q". In everyday life, you can usually take this to mean that if Q then P because P would have caused Q. If Q could instead have been caused by R and R was likely, then why didn't the person say so? Why didn't the person say "if R or P then Q"?

As one of the comments at Wired points out, the left side of the brain specializes in verbal processing.

Thus, it's a confounding factor that prevents us from concluding that the left side is "more amenable". That is possible, but not indicated.

1CannibalSmith
Self delete.

I argue that what we tend to understand by the statement "p implies q" is that p is the set of things that result in q.

But since that's not what the words mean even in standard English, it's clearly a misunderstanding on the part of the students.

1byrnema
Doesn't it depend upon the context? Suppose the context is some event P. Then we can talk about what things are implied by P and P implies Q has the standard/technical logical meaning. (If P implies Q1, Q2 and Q3 we naturally but not logically expect all 3 in a "true" answer: P -> Q1 ^ Q2 ^ Q3) On the other hand, if the context is Q, and we ask "what implies Q?" then we expect a fuller answer for P; P is the set if all things that imply Q: P1 v P2 v P3 -> Q. Perhaps, generally writing P-> Q as (P v S) <=> (Q ^ T) would more accurately capture all intended meanings (technical and natural). It would be understood that S and T are sets that complete the intended sets on each side necessary for the "if and only if" and that they could possibly be empty. (Alas, this would make it no easier to teach. I just stress in class that P implies Q means P is one example of things that imply Q, and Q is, likewise, need only be one example of things implied by P.)

Is "If P, then Q. P. Therefore, Not-Q." also just as basic and elemental an error as "P is Fermat's Last Theorem. Therefore, P is false."?

No, it's far more basic. "Fermat's Last Theorem" is a very complicated concept which is only being referenced here. The full logical description of the concept - which is what's necessary to evaluate the argument - would be much longer.

The statement "If P, then Q. Q. P is not ruled out." is correct logic. But it conveys very little information.

2Mike Bishop
How much information is conveyed, the amount we need to update our prior for P, upon learning Q, may be considerable. It depends on p(Q|P) and p(Q|~P)

When the patient is utterly unable to produce a rational justification for their behavior, and the therapist has asked reasonable questions based on logically-derived premises, the assertion becomes extremely unreasonable.

When the issue isn't rationality per se, but other concerns - and people begin to insist that others around them have the motivations that their own actions strongly indicate they themselves have - projection seems to be quite obvious.

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