jake987722 comments on When does an insight count as evidence? - Less Wrong

11 Post author: alexflint 04 January 2010 09:09AM

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Comment author: jake987722 05 January 2010 06:55:36AM *  0 points [-]

Something is falsifiable if if it is false, it can be proven false.

Isn't this true of anything and everything in mathematics, at least in principle? If there is "certainly an objective truth or falsehood to P = NP," doesn't that make it falsifiable by your definition?

Comment author: orthonormal 05 January 2010 07:15:26AM *  1 point [-]

It's not always that simple (consider the negation of G).

(If this is your first introduction to Gödel's Theorem and it seems bizarre to you, rest assured that the best mathematicians of the time had a Whiskey Tango Foxtrot reaction on the order of this video. But turns out that's just the way it is!)

Comment author: Technologos 05 January 2010 07:18:11AM 0 points [-]

I know they get overused, but Godel's incompleteness theorems provide important limits to what can and cannot be proven true and false. I don't think they apply to P vs NP, but I just note that not everything is falsifiable, even in principle.