Natural financial (and non-financial) incentives, by which I mean those incentives that are part of the model in which you're observing bias, do probably reduce bias, by letting less-biased actors win more. Artificial incentives from outside the model can alter behavior, but not directly change the rationality level.
Many biases are self-serving enough that they'll alter to match the behavior that outside incentives cause. I'm not sure that counts as a reduction in bias, or just a shift to biases that the incent-or prefers.
I'm trying to better understand the relationship between incentivization and rationality, and it occurred to me that it is a "folk fact" around here that large financial incentives don't make cognitive biases go away.
However, I can't seem to find any papers that actually say this. It's not easy to google for (I have tried) so I wonder if the Less Wrong collective memory knows how to find the papers?
Is there a pattern to which biases go away with incentivization? Do we have at least 5 examples of biases that go away with incentivization and 5 examples that don't go away with incentivization?
As an incentive, I'll paypal $10 to the commenter whose answer is least biased and most useful.