thomblake comments on Five-minute rationality techniques - Less Wrong
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I meant inflection: "Alteration in pitch or tone of the voice." But to avoid confusion in the future, I will try to use the linguist's definitions of these words, since they're more precise.
Also, the Wikipedia article suggests that tone rather than intonation might actually be the correct word, since there is a semantic difference.
Thank you.
No; "tone" refers to a phenomenon in certain languages (most famously Chinese) wherein otherwise identical words are distinguished from each other -- in isolation, nothing to do with their placement in a sentence -- by the contour of one's voice when pronouncing them. The kind of contextual variation of pitch that you are talking about -- intonation -- is pretty much universal to human speech in all languages.
Wikipedia says:
In this case, "have" is the auxillary verb, rather than the ordinary verb "to posess", and you can tell that by the intonation. That's otherwise identical words distinguished from each other.
Sorry if this sounds a bit harsh, but I'm puzzled by this reply. It's as if you stopped reading my comment immediately after the phrase "otherwise identical words distinguished from each other", and ignored the next part, which happened to be the most important part. So let me try again, using bold for emphasis:
Did you actually read the Wikipedia article that you cited? Here's an example it gives from Chinese:
This should have made it clear that we're talking about a different phenomenon from anything that occurs in standard varieties of English. In Chinese, the intonation pattern of an individual word is actually lexical -- it's a fixed property of the word that applies even when the word is pronounced in isolation, entirely like the pattern of consonant and vowel sounds in the word. The five Chinese words above are not homophones, unlike "have" ("possess") and "have" (auxiliary) in English. The two senses of English "have" can't be distinguished when the word is pronounced by itself.