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Perplexed comments on Open Thread, September, 2010-- part 2 - Less Wrong
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No, it is not. The reference leading to the abstract is the absolute risk described in the first paragraph of page 40 of Varghese. It is reference 28 of Varghese.
You are apparently following the references (21) appearing in Table 1 of Varghese. But these are relative risks (relative to felatio). Not at all what I meant.
My point about condom use came from an earlier reference that I had supplied which discusses a study that took place in Uganda in 2005. And I didn't say that they used condoms frequently, I said that they were monogamous couples who got regular medical inspections and had been counseled regarding condoms. And in this study, as I recall, there was no exclusion of condom users.
Ah no I haven't even read Varghese(77) yet. You looked at that one and posted a link to an abstract - this abstract, which comes from the same European Study Group and has the same numbers (563 couples) as 76. So the abstract you wanted me to look at is just 76, it's all the same source.
Satt also pointed this out in another reply here.
I'm not really concerned (at the moment) with what may or may not be happening in Uganda. The CDC data comes from this European Study Group, that is the original data in question - (the data you questioned).
I'm confused - the table says "assuming no condom use". So you're talking about other data, or they were able to filter the data.
What table in what document says that?
I'm talking about the data I said I am talking about: this paper and this piece of primary research which states
The original table in the top-level comment. I guess you're off on a tangent then.
I repeat. What table in what top-level comment? WTF is a "top-level comment?"
The top-level comment of this thread. Comments are nested. Click parent enough times and you're at a top-level comment. I'm surprised the name is confusing to you.
As for the table, it's linked in the top-level comment:
I can see how you would have missed this link.
The linked table is clearly labeled and indicates that the risk is supposed to be for not using a condom. The table has the same figures as the "Table 1" appearing as an image in a nested comment by satt, which has the same indication. I doubt you missed that.
Given that you appear to be discussing the cites referenced in the table, I'm puzzled as to why you think condom use is implied. Are you saying the table is wrong, or are you talking about some other part of the cite than was used to build it?