army1987 comments on Procedural Knowledge Gaps - Less Wrong

126 Post author: Alicorn 08 February 2011 03:17AM

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Comment author: [deleted] 14 July 2013 09:15:59PM *  0 points [-]

This discussion made me realize that if I were male, but otherwise unchanged, I might not be able to get dates easily.

What do you mean “otherwise unchanged”, same level of attractiveness broadly construed (to the extent that this makes sense), or same percentile of attractiveness broadly construed within your gender and age group?

Comment author: CronoDAS 14 July 2013 10:52:52PM 2 points [-]

Yeah, being the other biological sex is complicated, but a roughly equivalent statement might be "If she could (convincingly) present herself as male and attempted to get dates with women, she expect to find it much harder than she does getting dates with men while presenting as female."

Comment author: Swimmer963 14 July 2013 09:53:51PM 0 points [-]

Same percentile, I guess?

Comment author: [deleted] 14 July 2013 10:44:05PM 1 point [-]

ISTM that the n-th percentile man is less attractive to women than the n-th percentile woman is to men (at least for n not very close to 100), and as a result has less ‘bargaining power’, if you will.