The article uses the terminology "subjective probability" and "objective probability". I'm aware that the boundary between the subjective and the objective can be drawn in two different places and some problems in probability theory are due to flip-flopping on which boundary one uses. So I'm reading the article, trying to work out which subjective/objective boundary is being used and whether it is being used consistently.

Provisionally I think the article flip-flops. Early on probabilities are Bayesian, that is situational, but at the end the "paradox" arises due to treating probabilities as individual.