Ok, I finally get it: nyan_sandwich and you are using risk aversion in in the common way used to describe why someone is unwilling to risk $50 and/or certainty effects, not in the way standard to economists. If someone takes an irrational action and tries to justify it by citing risk aversion, should we adopt that as the name of the bias or say that was a bad justification?

People do exhibit inconsistent amounts of risk aversion over small and large risks, but calling that "risk aversion" seems misplaced. We know it's inconsistent to be scared to fly and feel fine riding in a car, but we wouldn't call that "bias against death" or a "cautious bias". I feel you are doing something analogous here.