Alejandro1 comments on Rationality Quotes August 2012 - Less Wrong

6 Post author: Alejandro1 03 August 2012 03:33PM

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Comment author: Alejandro1 02 August 2012 08:52:13PM 35 points [-]

British philosophy is more detailed and piecemeal than that of the Continent; when it allows itself some general principle, it sets to work to prove it inductively by examining its various applications. Thus Hume, after announcing that there is no idea without an antecedent impression, immediately proceeds to consider the following objection: suppose you are seeing two shades of colour which are similar but not identical, and suppose you have never seen a shade of colour intermediate between the two, can you nevertheless imagine such a shade? He does not decide the question, and considers that a decision adverse to his general principle would not be fatal to him, because his principle is not logical but empirical. When--to take a contrast--Leibniz wants to establish his monadology, he argues, roughly, as follows: Whatever is complex must be composed of simple parts; what is simple cannot be extended; therefore everything is composed of parts having no extension. But what is not extended is not matter. Therefore the ultimate constituents of things are not material, and, if not material, then mental. Consequently a table is really a colony of souls.

The difference of method, here, may be characterized as follows: In Locke or Hume, a comparatively modest conclusion is drawn from a broad survey of many facts, whereas in Leibniz a vast edifice of deduction is pyramided upon a pin-point of logical principle. In Leibniz, if the principle is completely true and the deductions are entirely valid, all is well; but the structure is unstable, and the slightest flaw anywhere brings it down in ruins. In Locke or Hume, on the contrary, the base of the pyramid is on the solid ground of observed fact, and the pyramid tapers upward, not downward; consequently the equilibrium is stable, and a flaw here or there can be rectified without total disaster.

--Bertrand Russell, A History of Western Philosophy

Comment author: Laoch 04 August 2012 01:56:23PM *  1 point [-]

I often find that I'm not well read enough or perhaps not smart enough to decipher the intricate language of these eminent philosophers. I'd like to know is Russell talking about something akin to scientific empiricism? Can someone enlighten me? From my shallow understanding though, it seems like what he is saying is almost common sense when it comes to building knowledge or beliefs about a problem domain.

Comment author: Alejandro1 04 August 2012 02:13:16PM *  4 points [-]

The idea that one should not philosophize keeping close contact with empirical facts, instead of basing a long chain of arguments on abstract "logical" principles like Leibniz's, may be almost common sense now, but it wasn't in the early modern period of which Russell was talking about. And when Russell wrote this (1940s) he was old enough to remember that these kind of arguments were still prevalent in his youth (1880s-1890s) among absolute idealists like Bradley, as he describes in "Our Knowledge of the External World" (follow the link and do a Ctrl-F search for Bradley). So it did not seem to him a way of thinking that was so ancient and outdated as to be not worth arguing against.

ETA: I meant, "The idea that one should philosophize keeping...", without not, obviously.

Comment author: Laoch 04 August 2012 02:41:31PM 1 point [-]

Ah very good, in that context it makes perfect sense.