I seem to recall E.T. Jaynes pointing out some obscure passages by Bohr which (according to him) showed that he wasn't that clueless about epistemology, but only about which kind of language to use to talk about it, so that everyone else misunderstood him. (I'll post the ref if I find it. EDIT: here it is¹.)

For example, if this maxim actually means what TheOtherDave says it means, then it is a very good thought expressed in a very bad way.

1. Disclaimer: I think the disproof of Bell's theorem in the linked article is wrong.