For a more parable-ic version of this, see here.
Suppose I make a precommitment P to take action X unless you take action Y. Action X is not in my interest: I wouldn't do it if I knew you'd never take action Y. You would want me to not precommit to P.
Is this blackmail? Suppose we've been having a steamy affair together, and I have the letters to prove it. It would be bad for both of these if they were published. Then X={Publish the letters} and Y={You pay me money} is textbook blackmail.
But suppose I own a MacGuffin that you want (I value it at £9). If X={Reject any offer} and Y={You offer more than £10}, is this still blackmail? Formally, it looks the same.
What about if I bought the MacGuffin for £500 and you value it at £1000? This makes no difference to the formal structure of the scenario. Then my behaviour feels utterly reasonable, rather than vicious and blackmail-ly.
What is the meaningful difference between the two scenarios? I can't really formalise it.
In the absence of precommitments, you can have options available that would play the same role.
I haven't seen any theory that clearly divides what is division of gain from trade from what isn't. When two agents sit down with each other, and they both have the possibility of having built, or not having built, various objects that would have various positive or negative values for the other... Where does the blackmail or aggressive negotiations end, and the dividing begin?
Can you elaborate on this (especially the first part)?