"Saying that the coherent extrapolated volition of 19th-century slave owners would have been racist is equivalent to saying that either racism is justified by the facts, or the fundamental norms of rationality latent in 19th-century slave-owner cognition are radically unlike our contemporary fundamental norms of rationality."

Could you elaborate on this please? If you're saying what I think you're saying then I would strongly like to argue against your point.

You might also like Brian Tomasik's critique of CEV