VincentYu comments on Terminology Thread (or "name that pattern") - Less Wrong
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IQ is normally distributed because the distribution of raw test scores is standardized to a normal distribution.
And why was the normal distribution originally chosen? Most of intelligence seems explained by thousands of alleles with small additive effects - and such a binomial situation will quickly converge to a normal distribution.
The phrase "additive effects" doesn't make sense except in reference to some metric. If your metric is IQ, then that's circular.
No, it's not, because IQ is itself extracted from a wide variety of cognitive measures.
You seem to be claiming that there are some unspecified underlying other metrics of which IQ is simply a linear combination. If so, then IQ is not the ultimate metric. Which doesn't contradict my claim (claiming that P is not true does not contradict the claim that P -> Q). It does raise the question of what those metrics are.
To expand on what I just said: IQ is a factor extracted from a wide variety of cognitive measures, whose genetic component is largely explained by additive effects from a large number of alleles of small effect with important but relatively small nonlinear contributions. That is, intelligence is largely additive because additive models explain much of observed variance and things like the positive manifold of cognitive tests.
Please be more precise in your comments, or stop wasting my time due to your lack of reading comprehension and obtuseness like you did before in my Parable post.