Many Worlds against Simulation?

Coacher

Lets assume few things:

1. Many Worlds is real.

2. All identical consciousnesses measures as 1 in anthropics . So if we have set of consciousness: 1xA,1xB and 1000000xC, it is still 1/3 chance, to perceive being C.

Now say some intelligent being (i.e. human) starts another human brain simulation on silicon chip. The operations it does are all discrete, so despite the chip splitting in to many chips in many worlds, the simulated consciousness itself remain just 1 (because of #2 assumption).

But that is not true for human who started the simulation as he differs somehow in every Everett branch and reaches billions different consciousnesses really fast.

Is there some mistake in reasoning, that real persons should heavily outweigh simulations, despite, how many of them are running, given such assumptions?

Lets assume few things:

1. Many Worlds is real.

2. All identical consciousnesses measures as 1 in anthropics . So if we have set of consciousness: 1xA,1xB and 1000000xC, it is still 1/3 chance, to perceive being C.

But that is not true for human who started the simulation as he differs somehow in every Everett branch and reaches billions different consciousnesses really fast.

Is there some mistake in reasoning, that real persons should heavily outweigh simulations, despite, how many of them are running, given such assumptions?

I don't get #2 - you need a better description of "measures as" in order to dissolve this question.

I suspect (but am not sure - it'll depend on your measurements) you'll also need to be very careful to distinguish "identical" from "very similar". If two consciousnesses are in different Everett branches, there is something distinct about them and they're not identical.

By "measures as" I mean as in what was the probability to experience exact this moment, from the set of all possible moments that "exists" (or can be experienced). And by "measures as 1" I mean, that if several physical "carriers" produces exact same experience, that counts as 1 experience in the grand total set of experiences, and probability to feel exactly that is 1/(count of all different experiences). Now I know this is controversial and counter intuitive. But still this is quite plausible, given what we even kn... (read more)