You're looking at Less Wrong's discussion board. This includes all posts, including those that haven't been promoted to the front page yet. For more information, see About Less Wrong.

antigonus comments on Religion, happiness, and Bayes - Less Wrong Discussion

3 Post author: fortyeridania 04 October 2011 10:21AM

You are viewing a comment permalink. View the original post to see all comments and the full post content.

Comments (27)

You are viewing a single comment's thread. Show more comments above.

Comment author: antigonus 04 October 2011 04:44:55PM *  0 points [-]

Actually, I should be more clear. Let T = theism, H = theism makes people happier, L = lots of people are theists. Then H&L are evidence for T iff the quotient P(H&L|T)/P(H&L|~T) > 1. We can rewrite this quotient as P(L|H&T)/P(L|H&~T) * P(H|T)/P(~H|T). Then the thread-starter's argument at best shows that T is irrelevant to L once we know H, hence P(L|H&T)/P(L|H&~T) = 1. So in this best-case scenario, the quotient becomes P(H|T)/P(H|~T). If theists can show this is greater than 1, then H&L still ends up as evidence for theism. So that's what you really have to be asking.