Hank, I'm sorry - I was a little too harsh. My general difficulty is that I don't think you endorse what Jack called universal relativism. If you don't, then
I addressed this previously, explaining that I am using 'objective' and 'subjective' in the common sense way of 'mind-independent' or 'mind-dependent'
and
I don't understand why people insist on equating 'objective morality' with something magically universal.
don't go well together.
It is the case that objective != universal, but objective things tend to cause universality. If you have a reason why universality isn't caused by objective fact in this case, you should state it.
Do you believe in an objective morality capable of being scientifically investigated (a la Sam Harris *or others*), or are you a moral nihilist/relativist? There seems to be some division on this point. I would have thought Less Wrong to be well in the former camp.
Edit: There seems to be some confusion - when I say "an objective morality capable of being scientifically investigated (a la Sam Harris *or others*)" - I do NOT mean something like a "one true, universal, metaphysical morality for all mind-designs" like the Socratic/Platonic Form of Good or any such nonsense. I just mean something in reality that's mind-independent - in the sense that it is hard-wired, e.g. by evolution, and thus independent/prior to any later knowledge or cognitive content - and thus can be investigated scientifically. It is a definite "is" from which we can make true "ought" statements relative to that "is". See drethelin's comment and my analysis of Clippy.