Do you believe in an objective morality capable of being scientifically investigated (a la Sam Harris *or others*), or are you a moral nihilist/relativist? There seems to be some division on this point. I would have thought Less Wrong to be well in the former camp.
Edit: There seems to be some confusion - when I say "an objective morality capable of being scientifically investigated (a la Sam Harris *or others*)" - I do NOT mean something like a "one true, universal, metaphysical morality for all mind-designs" like the Socratic/Platonic Form of Good or any such nonsense. I just mean something in reality that's mind-independent - in the sense that it is hard-wired, e.g. by evolution, and thus independent/prior to any later knowledge or cognitive content - and thus can be investigated scientifically. It is a definite "is" from which we can make true "ought" statements relative to that "is". See drethelin's comment and my analysis of Clippy.
So lets clear something up: the two attributes objective/subjective and universal/relative are logically distinct. You can can have objective relativism ("What is moral is the law and the law varies from place to place.") and subjective universalism ("What is moral is just our opinions, but we all have the same opinions").
The attribute "objective" or "subjective" in meta-ethics refers to the status of moral judgments themselves not descriptive facts about what moral judgments people actually make or the causal/mental facts that lead people to make them. Of course it is the case that people make moral judgments, that we can observe those judgments and can learn something about the brains that make them. No one here is denying that there are objective facts about moral psychology. The entire question is about the status of the moral judgments themselves. What makes it true when I say "Murder is immoral"? If your answer references my mind your answer is subjectivist, if your answer is "nothing" than you are a non-cognitivist or an error theorist. All those camps are anti-realist camps. Objectivist answers include "the Categorical Imperative" and "immorality supervenes on human suffering".
Is there accessible discussion out there of why one might expect real world correlation between objectivity and universality.
I see that subjective universalism is logically coherent, but I wouldn't expect it to be true - it seems like too much of a coincidence that nothing objective requires people have the same beliefs, yet people do anyway.