CronoDAS comments on Open Thread, October 1-15, 2012 - Less Wrong Discussion
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In a lot of places, you had to own property to vote.
(Also, there were plenty of places where slavery was, indeed, outlawed relatively quickly. Just not everywhere.)
That would seem to explain it.
Looking into it more, it doesn't quite seem to fit. According to the Wikipedia page on Jacksonian democracy, nearly all requirements to own property were dropped by 1850, and the Voting rights in the United States page seems to imply that it ended completely by 1860, but the civil war wasn't until 1861. Was it just that people don't stop it that quickly, and had the South been allowed to leave, they would have outlawed slavery in a few decades?
I still would prefer it if I could find something saying exactly when slavery ended and when voting was allowed for non-property owners.
Also, I'm curious as to how and when slavery ended in different countries. Unfortunately, my schooling has been somewhat biased.
The property requirements might have kept slavery from being banned while it was getting started, though. As for the whole "not wanting to compete with slaves" thing, that wasn't actually a factor. As I understand it, slaves weren't looked on as competition; rather, they were the people even the poorest whites got to look down upon. No matter how low on the proverbial totem pole a white person fell, they could still feel superior to black people. To quote HPMOR:
People can look down on immigrants too, but that doesn't keep them from getting mad at them for taking their jobs and trying to enact laws to restrict immigration.