Lumifer comments on Open thread, Mar. 2 - Mar. 8, 2015 - Less Wrong Discussion
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No, not at all, what you are talking about is called the mode of the distribution.
Why don't you look at the links in my post?
And the equation.
I don't see how it's different than the mode. Even the graphs show it as being the same: 1 2.
Think about a bimodal distribution, for example. But in any case, we're talking about M-estimates, weren't we?