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I suggest you check with Nate what exactly he thinks, but my opinion is:
If two decision algorithms are functionally equivalent, but algorithmically dissimilar, you'd want a decision theory that recognises this.
I think Nate agrees with this, and any lack of functional equivalence is due to not being able to fully specify that yet.
f and f' are functionally correlated, but not functionally equivalent. FDT does not recognise this.
Can't this be modelled as uncertainty over functional equivalence? (or over input-output maps)?
Can't this be modelled as uncertainty over functional equivalence? (or over input-output maps)?
Hm, that's an interesting point. Is what we care about just the brute input-output map? If we're faced with a black-box predictor, then yes, all that matters is the correlation even if we don't know the method. But I don't think any sort of representation of computations as input-output maps actually helps account for how we should learn about or predict this correlation - we learn and predict the predictor in a way that seems like updating a distribution over...