Is it reasonable to talk like this, if talking about an implicit optimization algorithm? Especially if fitness is determined by environment and is evaluated immediately ( as in if a negative threshhold is passed, which is the complete absence of all instacnes of a gene, then the gene is out, until/if it remerges ), is my reasoning wrong?
Is there a reason that people often use sex or sexual selection as an example, I have seeen this quite some times now? Why is that important here? I am asking because it is used in "newcomer posts"/entry posts too, as in is...
Could you explain to me how that resource helps to understand? I am afraid I can't see any proofs, so how is this post different in terms of truthfulness or reasoning than this one?
I am quite interested in a proof regarding the you can't do X by definition (as that sounds like axiomatic reasoning ) , and a showcase of why the axioms are reasonable, if that is possible? Alternatively may I request a link to where the statement comes from, as I am new to the site.
It is to note that evolutionary genetical optimization -> genotype -> phenotype, I am saying this as you extrapolate based on the bug study and metazoa are usually rather complex system, your argument is, as far as I know, sound, but a such a broad loss function might result in a variety of other behaviours, different from the intended purpose as well, what I am trying to do is expand on your point as it allows for a variety of interesting scenarios.
The post you linked contains a reference to the mathematical long-term fitness advantage of certain al... (read more)