I have to agree with anonymous. Having read your discussions of "true-by-definition" and arguments about labels for the past couple of weeks, I wonder what ax you are grinding against Aristotle. Who is making the claim that logical inference yields empirically significant inferences? Why do you see the lack of empirically significant inferences as some kind of point against Aristotelian syllogism?
Aristotle was one of the first, if not the first, to attempt to formalize reasoning. Sometimes when I read these posts, I feel like your are failing to distinguish between an inference and an induction. As Hume argues (forcefully, in my opinion), induction based on empirical observations... (read more)
I have to agree with anonymous. Having read your discussions of "true-by-definition" and arguments about labels for the past couple of weeks, I wonder what ax you are grinding against Aristotle. Who is making the claim that logical inference yields empirically significant inferences? Why do you see the lack of empirically significant inferences as some kind of point against Aristotelian syllogism? Aristotle was one of the first, if not the first, to attempt to formalize reasoning. Sometimes when I read these posts, I feel like your are failing to distinguish between an inference and an induction. As Hume argues (forcefully, in my opinion), induction based on empirical observations... (read more)