Suppose that I value a widget at $30. Suppose that the widget costs the widget-manufacturer $20 to produce, but, due to monopoly power on their part, they can charge $100 per widget.
The economic calculus for this problem is as follows. $30 (widget valuation) - $100 (widget price) = -$70 to me; $100 (widget price) - $20 (widget cost) = $80 to widget producers. $80 - $70 = +$10 total value. Ordinarily, this wouldn't imply that utilitarians are required to spend all their money on widgets because for a function to convert dollars to utils u($), u'($)>0, u''($)<0 and widget-producers usually have higher $ then widget consumers.
But suppose the widget monopolist is a poor worker commune. The profits go directly to the workers who, on average, have lower $ then I do. It seems like buying widgets would be more moral then, say, donating $80 to the same group of poor people ($80 - $80 = $0) because the widget purchase slightly compensates me for the donation in a way that is greater then the cost of the recipient to produce the widget.
And yet, I feel even less moral compunction to buy widgets then I do to donate $80 to GiveDirectly. Is this just an arbitrary, unjustifiable, subconscious desire to shove economic transactions into a separate domain from charitable donations or is there actually some mistake in the utilitarian logic here? If there isn't a mistake in the logic, is this something that the Open Philanthropy Project should be looking at?
[Question inspired by a similar question at the end of chapter 7 of Steven Landsburg's The Armchair Economist]
I don't know whether it's equivalent but it seems the transaction is equivalent to a $20-$30 price point fair deal plus a $80-$70 sized gift. In the limit if a dollar is worth equal to everyone then a gift $X-$X=0 no net change from gifting. The trade part comes from evaluation being higher than cost. This would be true even if the beneficiary and the cost bearer would be the same party.