So, I've been hearing a lot about the awesomeness of Solomonoff induction, at least as a theoretical framework. However, my admittedly limited understanding of Solomonoff induction suggests that it would form an epicly bad hypothesis if given a random string. So my question is, if I misunderstood, how does it deal with randomness? And if I understood correctly, isn't this a rather large gap?
Edit: Thanks for all the comments! My new understanding is that Solomonoff induction is able to understand that it is dealing with a random string (because it finds itself giving equal weight to programs that output a 1 or a 0 for the next bit), but despite that is designed to keep looking for a pattern forever. While this is a horrible use of resources, the SI is a theoretical framework that has infinite resources, so that's a meaningless criticism. Overall this seems acceptable, though if you want to actually implement a SI you'll need to instruct it on giving up. Furthermore, the SI will not include randomness as a distinct function in its hypothesis, which could lead to improper weighting of priors, but will still have good predictive power -- and considering that Solomonoff induction was only meant for computable functions, this is a pretty good result.
Let's reformulate it in terms of games. For example, asking SI to output probabilities is equivalent to making it play a game where rewards are proportional to log score. As far as I can tell, you're talking about a different game where SI outputs a single guess at each step, and wins a dollar for each correct guess. In that game I do know several ways to construct input sequences that allow a human to beat SI by an unbounded amount of money, but I'd be surprised if a sequence of i.i.d. random bits was also such a sequence. And I'd be even more surprised if it depended on the encoding of programs used by SI. Not saying that you're wrong, but can you try to sketch a more detailed proof? In particular, can you explain how it gets around the fact that SI's probability of the next bit being 1 converges to 5/6?
I'm saying that SI's probability of next bit being 1 doesn't converge to 5/6, for some encodings and (very importantly) using single outputs instead of probability distributions.
For example, suppose we take a program encoding where it does converge to 5/6 then expand it so every "0" becomes a "00" and every "1" becomes a "01". Then we add rules to the encoding such that, for every "10" or "11" starting at an even position (so the original re-coding would have none), an extra zero is appended to th... (read more)