All of fdrocha's Comments + Replies

fdrocha10

Even if it actually turns out that "Super human AI will run on computers not much more expensive than personal computers" (which deepseek-r1 made marginally more plausible, but I'd say is still unlikely) it remains true that there will be very large returns to running 100 super human AIs instead of 1, or maybe 1 that's 100 times larger and smarter.

In other words, demand for hardware capable of running AIs will be very elastic. I don't see reductions in the costs of running AIs of a given level being bad for expected NVDA future cashflows. They don't mean we'll run the same "amount of AI" in less hardware, it will be closer to more AI in same amount of hardware.

fdrocha83

One quick observation about NVDA dividends that not many people might be aware of: NVDA pays a quarterly dividend of exactly once cent ($0.01) per share. They don't do this for the "usual" reason companies pay dividends (returning money to shareholders) but because by paying a non-zero dividend at all NVDA becomes part of dividend-paying company indexes and that means that ETFs that follow those indexes will buy NVDA shares. So they technically pay a dividend but for the purposes of valuation you should think of it as a non dividend paying stock.

Regarding ... (read more)

6Ben
Stock buybacks! Thank you. That is definitely going to be a big part f the "I am missing something here" I was expressing above.
fdrocha10

Taking your Tetris example, sure 6KB seems small -- as long as you restrict yourself to a space of all possible programs for Gameboy or whichever platform you took this example from. But if your goal is to encode Tetris for a computer engineer who has no knowledge about Gameboy, you will have to include, at the very least, the documentation on the CPU ISA, the hardware architecture of the device and the details on the quirks of its I/O hardware. That would already bring the "size of Tetris" to 10s of megabytes. Describing it for a person from 1950s, I susp

... (read more)
fdrocha2823

I don't think it affects the essence of your argument, but I would say that you cannot get a good estimate of the Kolgomorov complexity of Word or other modern software from binary size. The Kolgomorov complexity of Word should properly be the size of the smallest binary that would execute in an indistinguishable way to Word. There are very good reasons to think that the existing Word binary is significantly larger than that.

Modern software development practices optimize for a combination of factors where binary size has very little weight. Development and... (read more)

fdrocha10

It would be great to prevent it, but it also seems very hard? Is there anything short of an international agreement with serious teeth that could have a decent chance of doing it? I suppose US-only legislation could maybe delay it for a few years and would be worth doing, but that also seems a very big lift in current climate.

Really fantastic primer! I have been meaning to learn more about DeFi and this was a perfect intro.

Does anybody know, for someone who wants to learn more, not just on the investing/trading side but on the development of smart contracts, what are good resources, other than the many links in the article?

Are there good books on the topic? Or tutorials?

What about subreddits or discord servers? People to follow on twitter?

I get what you are saying. You have convinced me that the following two statements are contradictory:

  • Axiom of Independence: preferring A to B implies preferring ApC to BpC for any p and C.
  • The variance and higher moments of utility matter, not just the expected value.

My confusion is that it intuitively it seems both must be true for a rational agent but I guess my intuition is just wrong.

Thanks for your comments, they were very illuminating.

I think you are not allowed to refer explicitly to utility in the options.

I was going to answer that I can easily reword my example to not explicitly mention any utility values, but when I tried to that it very quickly led to something where it is obvious that u(A) = u(C). I guess my rewording was basically going through the steps of the proof of VNM theorem.

I am still not sure I am convinced by your objection, as I don't think there's anything self-referential in my example, but that did give me some pause.

1Slider
In a case where you are going to pick less variance less expected value over more variance more expected value it will mean that option needs to have a bigger "utility number". In order to get that you need to mess with how utility is calculated. Then it becomes ambigious whether the "utility-fruits" are redefined in the same go as we redefine how we compare options. If we name them "paperclips" it's clear that they are not touched by such redefining. It triggerred a "type-unsafety" trigger but the operation overall might be safe as it doesn't actualise the danger. For example having an option of "plum + 2 utility" could give one agent "plum + apple" if it valued apples and "plum + pear" if it valued pears. I guess if you consistenly replace all physical items for their utility values it doesn't happen. In the case of "gain 1 utility with probability 1" if your agent is risk-seeking it might give this option "actual" utility less than 1. In general if we lose the distribution independence we might need to retain the information of our suboutcomes rather than collapsing it to he a single number. For if an agent is risk-seeking it's clear that it would prefer A=( 5% 0,90% 1, 5% 2) to B=(100%, 1). But same risk-seeking in combined lotteries would make it prefer C=(5% , 90% A, 5% A+A) over A. When comparing C and A it's not sufficent to know that their expected utilities are 1.
The tricky bit is the question whether this also applies to one-shot problems or not.

This is the crux. It seems to me that the expected utility frame work means that if you prefer A to B in one time choice, then you must also prefer n repetitions of A to n repetitions of B, because the fact that you have larger variance for n=1 does not matter. This seems intuitively wrong to me.

0Pattern
I'd hold that it's the reverse that seems more questionable. If n is a large number then the Law of Large Numbers may be applicable ("the average of the results obtained from a large number of trials should be close to the expected value, and will tend to become closer as more trials are performed.").

Thanks, I looked at the discussion you linked with interest. I think I understand my confusion a little better, but I am still confused.

I can walk through the proof of the VNM theorem and see where the independence axiom comes in and how it leads to u(A)=u(B) in my example. The axiom of independence itself feels unassailable to me and I am not quite sure this is a strong enough argument against it. Maybe having a more direct argument from axiom of independence to unintuitive result would be more convincing.

Maybe the answer is to read Dawes book, thanks for the reference.

3Said Achmiz
Well, the axiom of independence is just that: an axiom. It doesn’t need to be assailed; we can take it as axiomatic, or not. If we do take it as axiomatic, certain interesting analyses become possible (depending on what other axioms we adopt). If we refuse to do so, then bad things happen—or so it’s claimed. In any case, Dawes’ argument (and related ones) about the independence axiom fundamentally concerns the question of what properties of an outcome distribution we should concern ourselves with. (Here “outcome distribution” can refer to a probability distribution, or to some set of outcomes, distributed across time, space, individuals, etc., that is generated by some policy, which we may perhaps view as the output of a generator with some probability distribution.) A VNM-compliant agent behaves as if it is maximizing the expectation of the utility of its outcome distribution. It is not concerned at all with other properties of that distribution, such as dispersion (i.e., standard deviation or some related measure) or skewness. (Or, to put it another way, a VNM-compliant agent is unconcerned with the form of the outcome distribution.) What Dawes is saying is simply that, contra the assumptions of VNM-rationality, there seems to be ample reason to concern ourselves with, for instance, the skewness of the outcome distribution, and not just its expectation. But if we do prefer one outcome distribution to another, where the dis-preferred distribution has a higher expectation (but a “better” skewness), then we violate the independence axiom.

I find it confusing that the only thing that matters to a rational agent is the expectation of utility, i.e., that the details of the probability distribution of utilities do not matter.

I understand that VNM theorem proves that from what seem reasonable axioms, but on the other hand it seems to me that there is nothing irrational about having different risk preferences. Consider the following two scenarios

  • A: you gain utility 1 with probability 1
  • B: you gain utility 0 with probability 1/2 or utility 2 with probability 1/2

According to expected utility, it is... (read more)

4dxu
You may be interested in reading this series of posts.
2Slider
I think you are not allowed to refer explicitly to utility in the options. That is an option of "I do not choose this option" is selfdefeating and illformed. In another post I posited a risk-averse utility function that references amount of paperclips. Maximising the utility function doesn't maximise expected amount of paperclips. Even if the physical objects of interest are paperclips and we value them linearly a paperclip is not synonymous with utilon. It's not a thing you can give out in an option.
3Said Achmiz
Robyn Dawes makes a more detailed version of precisely this argument in Rational Choice in an Uncertain World. I summarize his argument in an old comment of mine. (The axiom you must reject, incidentally, if you find this sort of reasoning convincing, is the independence axiom.)
7TheMajor
This is part of the meaning of 'utility'. In real life we often have risk-averse strategies where, for example, 100% chance at 100 dollars is preferred to 50% chance of losing 100 dollars and 50% chance of gaining 350 dollars. But, under the assumption that our risk-averse tendencies satisfy the coherence properties from the post, this simply means that our utility is not linear in dollars. As far as I know this captures most of the situations where risk-aversion comes into play: often you simply cannot tolerate extremely negative outliers, meaning that your expected utility is mostly dominated by some large negative terms, and the best possible action is to minimize the probability that these outcomes occur. Also there is the following: consider the case where you are repeatedly offered bets of the example you give (B versus C). You know this in advance, and are allowed to redesign your decision theory from scratch (but you cannot change the definition of 'utility' or the bets being offered). What criteria would you use to determine if B is preferable to C? The law of large numbers(/central limit theorem) states that in the long run with probability 1 the option with higher expected value will give you more utilons, and in fact that this number is the only number you need to figure out which option is the better pick in the long run. The tricky bit is the question whether this also applies to one-shot problems or not. Maybe there are rational strategies that use, say, the aggregate median instead of the expected value, which has the same limit behaviour. My intuition is that this clashes with what we mean with 'probability' - even if this particular problem is a one-off, at least our strategy should generalise to all situations where we talk about probability 1/2, and then the law of large numbers applies again. I also suspect that any agent that uses more information to make this decision than the expected value to decide (in particular, occasionally deliberatel