You're presupposing implicit agreement from all men with the notion that women's ideas have merit, and the agreement from all women with your notion of wanting to be included in the company of men as equals.

Nothing in wobster109's comment presumed anything of the sort. Moreover, if there are men who are unable to see ideas coming from women as having merit then the problem seems to be with those men more than anything else.

But we can if you want steelman your statement slightly: If instead of the men having disagreement with the notion that women's ideas have merit, it is possible that some men have problems at a basic level with accepting ideas from women. In that case, maybe there is an actual problem that needs to get dealt with, but even then, you need a lot more of an argument that the best solution is complete gender segregation and not trying to teach those men to accept ideas from women. And calling a solution "elegant" doesn't make it so: indeed, this is a "solution" where we can empirically see what happens when countries like Saudi Arabia or places like Kiryas Yoel try to implement variants of it, and it isn't pretty.

Because that's what modern "gender equality" ideology amounts to - pressuring women to act like men, disregarding their actual ideas and aspirations for the goal of eradicating femininity

Aside from this being one of the most strawmanned possible notion of what constitutes gender equality, does it strike you at all as odd as that you are replying to an actual woman and telling her that what she wants is due to pressure from some ideology for her not act feminine? Do you see what might be either wrong with that or at least epistemologically unwise?