I've raised arguments for philosophical scepticism before, which have mostly been argued against in a Popper-esque manner of arguing that even if we don't know anything with certainty, we can have legitimate knowledge on probabilities.
The problem with this, however, is how you answer a sceptic about the notion of probability having a correlation with reality. Probability depends upon axioms of probability- how are said axioms to be justified? It can't be by definition, or it has no correlation to reality.
Why are you applying ad hominem selectively? You wouldn't use an ad hominem argument in most things- why is the skeptic an exception?
This isn't ad-hominem. I don't care which skeptic it is. I'm simply pointing out a pretty severe inconsistency between stated beliefs and actions. I use a similar tactic on a lot of topics where I don't have the time or skill to do ground-up research (and to help decide where it's worth the time). If the proponents of an idea behave very inconsistently with the idea, I update more strongly on their behavior than their statements.
The skeptic is making a prediction, that there is no probability or causality (they usually say "there is no basis fo... (read more)