The Open Thread posted at the beginning of the month has gotten really, really big, so I've gone ahead and made another one. Post your new discussions here!
This thread is for the discussion of Less Wrong topics that have not appeared in recent posts. If a discussion gets unwieldy, celebrate by turning it into a top-level post.
So we've averted misunderstanding, good. My question remains: what does fraud (or non-fraud) in non-alcoholic drinks tell us about whether people "really can tell the difference" between wines?
Just to be sure what you're claiming, btw: if I did a "triangle test", blinded, on two arbitrary bottles of wine from my supermarket, and I could tell them apart, would you retract that claim? Or is your claim restricted to some specific varietals?
How could I have explained my position better so that you would not have inferred the point about fruit drinks?
It doesn't remain. If people can tell the difference, you don't gain from fraud. If they can't, you could gain from fraud. Where's the confusion?
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